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Does the use of British Common Law as precedent in United States courts carry with it a class bias in favor of the rich?
tynamite's avatar Since when did British law influence US laws? They both operate in different ways, and are in no way similar.

If you're asking whether British law favours the rich, I can happily tell you that it doesn't. It favours the powerful. That's why the person who put a cream pie in Rupert Murdoch's face got sentenced to a year in prison for causing harm and distress. The outcome of a court case isn't thankfully correlated to money as it is in the US, where the most expensive lawyer can win any court case, no matter what the laws are.
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tynamite's avatar


Adisa, you re so wrong!. Every state east of the Mississippi adopted the Common Law of England after the revolution. The very structure of US Courts is based on their English counterparts. Courts of Law; Courts of Equity (Chancery) Law = trial by jury Chancery = no right to a jury.
Our legal system is English to the core.
Unless, of course you are Louisiana (state), then you are Code Napolean.
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tynamite's avatar


Thanks for clarifying this to me. I was asked to answer this question by someone else, so I'm confused as this is outside of what I know.

My answer answered about Laws, not Common Law.
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What's an assertion, and what should I type in?

Compesh is a question and answer (and debate) website, so before you make a debate, you better learn what an assertion is. I suppose you already know what a question is, and that you've typed it in the box. ;)

An assertion, is basically a statement you can make, that is either true or false.

Richer people have better health.

The question for that would be, Do richer people have better health?

And don't forget to make your assertion, match your question.

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